COURT OF TAX APPEALS DECISIONS
ONLY THE DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE’S (DOJ) RECEIPT OF THE DECISION, NOT THAT OF DEPUTIZED BIR COUNSEL, STARTS THE APPEAL PERIOD. Criminal cases must be prosecuted under the direction and control of the public prosecutor. Deputized legal officers, such as BIR lawyers, merely assist and remain under the supervision of the DOJ, which retains principal prosecutorial authority. Service of a decision on deputized counsel does not bind the principal counsel; instead, only receipt by the DOJ triggers the reglementary period for appeal. In this case, the DOJ received the Division’s Resolution on December 29, 2023, giving plaintiff-appellant until January 15, 2024 to file a Petition for Review. However, the Motion for Extension of Time was filed only on January 24, 2024 via registered mail, beyond the allowable 15-day period. Since the motion was granted only on condition that it was timely filed, the Court deemed it denied. Consequently, no valid Petition for Review or motion to extend was filed within the reglementary period, rendering the assailed Resolution final and executory. The Court En Banc thus dismissed the Petition for lack of jurisdiction. (People of the Philippines v. SKI Construction Group, Inc. et. al., CTA EB Crim No. 139, CTA Crim Case No. A-17, February 17, 2025)
A CLAIM FOR EXEMPTION FROM REAL PROPERTY TAX (RPT) INVOLVES A QUESTION OF FACT CONCERNING THE CORRECTNESS OF THE ASSESSMENT, WHICH IS WITHIN THE JURISDICTION OF THE LOCAL BOARD OF ASSESSMENT APPEALS (LBAA) AND CENTRAL BOARD OF ASSESSMENT APPEALS (CBAA); THUS, EXEMPTION CLAIM SHOULD HAVE BEEN RESOLVED AT THE ADMINISTRATIVE LEVEL, NOT DISMISSED AS A PURE QUESTION OF LAW. A taxpayer claiming exemption from RPT must submit sufficient documentary evidence to the assessor, thereby placing the burden on the taxpayer to prove factual grounds for exemption. Such claims pertain to the reasonableness or correctness of the assessment and are questions of fact, distinct from questions of law involving authority to assess or collect, which fall under the jurisdiction of the LBAA and CBBA. In this case, Qualfon Philippines, Inc. (QPI) challenged the assessment of its desktop computers, claiming they are exempt from RPT. The CBAA erroneously ruled the issue as a pure question of law, despite its own exercise of jurisdiction when it rendered a decision upholding RPT liability and ordering reassessment. In line with the legal framework and jurisprudence, QPI’s claim involved factual determination of its entitlement to exemption and should have been properly evaluated by the LBAA and CBAA. (Qualfon Philippines, Inc. v. The City of Dumaguete, et al., CTA EB No. 2741, July 2025)
A PROTEST MUST BE IN WRITING AND FILED WITHIN 30 DAYS FROM PAYMENT OF THE ASSESSED REAL PROPERTY TAX (RPT); THE TAXPAYER’S AUGUST 8, 2017 LETTER OF MANIFESTATION WAS NOT A VALID WRITTEN PROTEST, AND ITS FAILURE TO TIMELY APPEAL RENDERED THE ASSESSMENT FINAL AND UNAPPEALABLE. Section 252(a) of the 1991 Local Government Code requires that a protest to an RPT assessment be made in writing within 30 days from payment, and any denial must be appealed to the LBAA within 60 days from receipt. Qualfon Philippines, Inc. (QPI) contended that its August 8, 2017 Letter of Manifestation constituted its formal protest following the City Treasurer’s denial dated July 25, 2017. However, the Court ruled that the letter was merely a manifestation, with no accompanying formal protest submitted to the records. The claim that the Treasurer’s early denial deprived QPI of the 30-day protest period was also rejected, as the law imposes the 30-day period on the taxpayer to act, not on the Treasurer to wait. The Court emphasized that statutory periods must be strictly followed, and failure to do so is fatal. As QPI failed to file a timely appeal by the September 25, 2017 deadline, the assessment became final and executory. (Qualfon Philippines, Inc. v. The City of Dumaguete, et al., CTA EB No. 2741, July 2025)
WHERE THERE IS NO NOTICE OF ASSESSMENT (NOA) ISSUED, THE PROPER REMEDY FOR THE TAXPAYER IS UNDER SECTION 196 OF THE LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE (LGC) ON REFUND OF ERRONEOUSLY PAID OR ILLEGALLY COLLECTED TAXES, NOT UNDER SECTION 195, WHICH PRESUPPOSE A FORMAL DEFICIENCY TAX ASSESSMENT. Under Section 196 of the LGC, a taxpayer may file a claim for refund of taxes that were erroneously or illegally collected, without the need for a prior assessment or protest. This provision applies when there is no finding of deficiency and, consequently, no Notice of Assessment (NOA) issued by the local treasurer. In this case, the Court held that the billing statements issued to respondent after the renewal of its business permit were not formal NOAs as contemplated under Section 195 of the LGC. Since there was no NOA finding a deficiency, the respondent was not required to file a protest within 60 days under Section 195. As such, the respondent properly availed of the remedy under Section 196 by filing a claim for refund within the two-year prescriptive period. Therefore, Section 7B.14(b) and (c) of the Revised Makati Revenue Code, which mirror Section 195, do not apply. (City of Makati and the Office of the City Treasurer of Makati through Jesusa E. Cuneta v. Casas+Architects, CTA EB No. 2771 [CTA AC No. 259], April 29, 2025).
LOCAL GOVERNMENTS ARE PROHIBITED FROM IMPOSING BUSINESS TAXES ON PROFESSIONALS SOLELY ENGAGED IN THE PRACTICE OF THEIR PROFESSION; SINCE CASAS+ARCHITECTS OPERATES EXCLUSIVELY AS A PROFESSIONAL PARTNERSHIP OF ARCHITECTS, IT IS EXEMPT FROM LOCAL BUSINESS TAX (LBT) AND ENTITLED TO A REFUND OF THE AMOUNTS PAID. Section 133(j) of the LGC prohibits local government units from levying taxes on professionals who are exclusively engaged in the practice of their profession. In this case, the Court affirmed that Casas+Architects is a professional partnership engaged solely in the practice of architecture, including interior design and landscaping, which fall within the lawful scope of the architectural profession. The Court in Division found no evidence that the Casas+Architects was involved in interior decorating or any other commercial activity that would remove it from the ambit of tax exemption. Given this, the imposition of LBT by the City of Makati was unlawful. (City of Makati and the Office of the City Treasurer of Makati through Jesusa E. Cuneta v. Casas+Architects, CTA EB No. 2771 [CTA AC No. 259], July 2025).
FOREIGN CURRENCY EXCEEDING USD10,000 BROUGHT INTO THE PHILIPPINES WITHOUT FULL DECLARATION IS SUBJECT TO LAWFUL SEIZURE BY CUSTOMS AUTHORITIES, AS CORRECTLY APPLIED WHEN MOHAMMAD FAILED TO DECLARE USD501,600 OUT OF THE USD649,600 HE CARRIED UPON ARRIVAL FROM HONG KONG. Custom Modernization and Tariff Act (CMTA) authorizes customs officers to seize goods subject to forfeiture, including undeclared items under Section 1113(l)(2), while Section 1404 specifically mandates seizure for failure to declare dutiable goods—including foreign currency—upon arrival. Section 4.1 of Customs Administrative Order (CAO) No. 1-2017 requires arriving passengers carrying foreign currency in excess of USD 10,000 to declare the entire amount using a Foreign Currency Declaration Form (FCDF), consistent with Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (BSP) rules. In this case, Mohammad arrived at NAIA from Hong Kong carrying USD 649,600 in his baggage, but declared only USD 148,000 in the FCDF. As this left USD 501,600 undeclared, the District Collector of NAIA rightfully exercised the authority to seize the amount through a Warrant of Seizure and Detention (WSD). (Chang L. Mohammad, et al. v. Commissioner of Customs, CTA EB No. 2784, July 2025).
SETTLEMENT OF SEIZURE CASES WHEN FRAUD IS PRESENT IS PROHIBITED; THE DELIBERATE NON-DECLARATION OF USD 491,600 CONSTITUTED FRAUD THAT DISQUALIFIED THE CASE FROM COMPROMISE. Section 1124 of the CMTA authorizes the District Collector, with the approval of the Commissioner, to settle seizure cases through payment of a fine or redemption of forfeited goods. However, such settlement is expressly disallowed when fraud is involved, the importation is prohibited, or the release of goods would be contrary to law. In this case, the Commissioner of Customs acted within the legal bounds of his discretion when he upheld the denial of petitioners’ Motion to Enter Into Compromise Settlement. Although petitioners contended that none of the statutory exceptions applied, the record shows that petitioner Mohammad declared only USD 148,000 out of the USD 649,600 he carried upon arrival in the Philippines. This substantial discrepancy, involving over USD 491,000 in undeclared funds, was found to be a deliberate act of concealment—an indicium of fraud. Accordingly, in view of the fraud attending the undeclared importation, settlement of the seizure case was legally barred under Section 1124.
(Chang L. Mohammad, et al. v. Commissioner of Customs, CTA EB No. 2784, July 2025).
FORFEITURE OF THE UNDECLARED USD 491,600 WAS PROPER AND NOT EXCESSIVE, AS IT IS A PENALTY EXPRESSLY ALLOWED UNDER SECTION 1124 OF THE CMTA, AND NEITHER PROVISIONAL DECLARATION UNDER SECTION 403 NOR AMENDMENT UNDER SECTION 408 APPLIED, GIVEN THE COURT’S FINDING OF FRAUD AND THE ABSENCE OF VALID JUSTIFICATION. The penalty of forfeiture is authorized under CMTA when fraud attends the importation of goods, and may not be settled by payment of a fine. Petitioners’ reliance on CAO 10-2020, Section 14-4, and CMTA Sections 403 and 408—on provisional and amended declarations—is misplaced, as these provisions do not apply when the declarant is aware of material facts but deliberately fails to disclose them. In this case, the Court found that petitioner Mohammad knew he was carrying USD 491,600, despite his claim that some of the money belonged to another person and was verbally declared. His failure to lodge a proper written declaration or request an amendment before examination, without any valid justification, disqualified him from the remedial provisions of the CMTA. The presence of prima facie evidence of fraud warranted the denial of the motion for settlement and justified the forfeiture. (Chang L. Mohammad, et al. v. Commissioner of Customs, CTA EB No. 2784, July 2025).
CAPITAL GAINS TAX (CGT) MUST BE BASED ON THE CORRECT ZONAL VALUE, AND SINCE THE BIR USED AN INCORRECT AND UNSUBSTANTIATED VALUATION, RESULTING IN OVERPAID TAX, THE TAXPAYER IS ENTITLED TO A REFUND. A CGT on the sale of land by a domestic corporation is imposed at 6% based on the higher of the gross selling price or the fair market value (FMV), which may either be the zonal value prescribed by the BIR or the value stated in the city assessor’s schedule. In this case, the BIR computed CGT based on a zonal value of ₱10,650/sqm, amounting to ₱5.75 million in CGT liability, which the petitioner contested as erroneous. The Court found merit in the petitioner’s claim that the property should be assessed using a zonal value of ₱4,725/sqm, citing a certified BIR document (Exhibit “P-4”) that accurately reflected the applicable rates for the property’s classification. Although the petitioner also proposed a lower ₱7,500/sqm valuation based on “Interior Lot” classification, this claim lacked evidentiary support. Nonetheless, the Court determined that the BIR misapplied the higher rate applicable only to “Along-the-road” properties, and thus used the ₱4,725/sqm rate as the correct basis. With this adjustment, the correct CGT was computed at ₱2.55 million, and taking into account initial and subsequent payments, the Court found an overpayment of ₱3.2 million in CGT alone. Furthermore, the Court ruled that the surcharge of ₱1.44 million and excessive interest of over ₱1 million were unjustified under Sections 248 and 249 of the NIRC, because no grounds for civil penalties were established. In total, the petitioner was held to have overpaid by ₱5,677,373.22 and was awarded a refund of this amount.
(Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas v. CIR, CTA Case No. 10083, Amended Decision dated February 19, 2025).
BOTH ADMINISTRATIVE AND JUDICIAL CLAIMS FOR REFUND MUST BE FILED WITHIN TWO YEARS FROM TAX PAYMENT, AND THE COURT DISMISSED THE PETITION FOR LACK OF JURISDICTION BECAUSE THE PETITIONER FAILED TO PROVE ACTUAL FILING AND RECEIPT OF ITS ADMINISTRATIVE REFUND CLAIM WITH THE BIR. Sections 204(C) and 229 of the 1997 National Internal Revenue Code (NIRC), as amended, provide that a taxpayer seeking refund of taxes erroneously or illegally collected must file a written administrative claim with the BIR within two years from the date of payment, and only thereafter may it file a judicial claim before the Court. In this case, the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (BSP) sought the refund of documentary stamp tax (DST) paid on a property acquired through extrajudicial foreclosure, asserting exemption under the NIRC. However, while BSP claimed it filed an administrative claim dated June 18, 2018 and a follow-up letter dated April 10, 2019, the Court found these insufficiently substantiated. The LBC receipt submitted as proof for the June 18 letter merely showed delivery to a certain “Mary Ann G. Salazar” but bore no stamp or acknowledgment from BIR RDO No. 23-B confirming actual receipt. During cross-examination, BSP’s witness admitted there was no BIR stamp on the document. Similarly, the April 10 follow-up letter, filed via registered mail, was returned undelivered with a “Moved Out” notation, and BSP’s representative testified that no one signed the return card. As no other evidence or testimony established proper filing or receipt of the administrative claim, the Court ruled that BSP failed to meet the jurisdictional requirement of prior administrative filing, which rendered the judicial claim premature and void of jurisdiction. (Bangko Sentral ng Pilipnas v. CIR, CTA Case No. 10106, Amended Decision dated March 13, 2024).
BIR ISSUANCES
Revenue Memorandum Circular No. 75-2025, July 23, 2025
| Category | Details |
| Covered Period (Original Deadlines) | Tax returns, payments, and required document submissions originally due from July 21 to July 25, 2025 |
| New Deadline | Extended to July 31, 2025; if this date falls on a holiday or non-working day, the deadline moves to the next working day |
| Covered Transactions | · Filing of BIR forms
· Payment of internal revenue taxes · Submission of reports, attachments, and other required documents |
| Affected Taxpayers | Those residing or operating in the areas affected by the weather disturbances and covered by the corresponding work suspension declarations |
| Covered Areas (Provinces & Metro Manila) | Metro Manila, and provinces in Ilocos Region, Cordillera, Cagayan Valley, Central Luzon, CALABARZON, MIMAROPA, Bicol Region, and Western Visayas, including: – Ilocos Norte, Ilocos Sur, La Union, Pangasinan – Abra, Apayao, Benguet, Ifugao, Kalinga, Mountain Province – Cagayan, Nueva Vizcaya – Bataan, Bulacan, Nueva Ecija, Pampanga, Tarlac, Zambales – Cavite, Laguna, Batangas, Rizal, Quezon – Marinduque, Oriental Mindoro, Occidental Mindoro, Palawan, Romblon – Albay, Camarines Sur, Catanduanes, Masbate, Sorsogon – Aklan, Antique, Capiz, Guimaras, Iloilo, Negros Occidental |
BIR RULINGS
FRANCHISE FEES ARE SUBJECT TO REGULAR CORPORATE INCOME TAX AS ORDINARY BUSINESS INCOME AND A 2% EXPANDED WITHHOLDING TAX IF THE PAYOR IS A TOP WITHHOLDING AGENT. Pursuant to Sections 27 (A) and (D) and 42 (A) (4) of the Tax Code, as amended, and Revenue Regulations No. 2-1998, as amended, along with the Supreme Court’s interpretation of passive income, franchise fees are generally subject to regular corporate income tax rather than the final withholding tax (FWT) on royalties. This is because such fees are considered ordinary business income derived from the active pursuit of a corporation’s primary purpose, which includes activities such as developing and licensing intellectual property rights, as well as providing training and systems for franchisees. Consequently, these fees are subject to the regular corporate income tax rate of 25% for income earned after July 1, 2020 (or 30% for income earned before that date). Furthermore, suppose the payor of these franchise fees is designated as one of the top withholding agents by the Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR). In that case, the fees will also be subject to an expanded withholding tax (EWT) of 2%. Otherwise, if the payor is not a top withholding agent, the EWT will not apply. (BIR Ruling No. OT-015-2025, January 7, 2025)
RECONVEYANCE OF LAND WITHOUT CONSIDERATION BY A REAL ESTATE BUSINESS IS A TAXABLE TRANSFER OF AN ORDINARY ASSET, INCURRING CORPORATE INCOME TAX, VAT FOR THE TRANSFEROR, AND CWT (BASED ON HIGHER OF SELLING PRICE OR FAIR MARKET VALUE) AND DST FOR THE TRANSACTION. Under Section 27(A) and 196 of the Tax Code, as amended, and Revenue Regulations No. 2-98 and No. 7-2003, the reconveyance of a parcel of land, even without consideration, is considered a taxable transfer if the transferor is engaged in the real estate business. As such, the reconveyed land by Cityland Development Corporation to original owners due to overlapping of structures, which treated as an ordinary asset, is considered subject to corporate income tax and value-added tax for the transferor. Consequently, the transaction is also subject to creditable withholding tax (CWT) by the transferee, based on the gross selling price or fair market value (whichever is higher) and depending on the property’s value, and a documentary stamp tax (DST). (BIR Ruling No. OT-016-2025, January 7, 2025)
THE BIR DOES NOT ISSUE RULINGS SUCH AS REQUESTS TO CANCEL A LETTER OF AUTHORITY IF THE MATTER IS ALREADY UNDER AUDIT OR INVESTIGATION. Pursuant to Section 2 (r) of Revenue Bulletin No. 01-03, the Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) considers requests for rulings on matters that are already the subject of an ongoing audit or investigation as “No-Ruling Areas.” Therefore, a request to cancel a Letter of Authority due to an existing audit/investigation falls under this “No-Ruling Area” policy. (BIR Ruling No. OT-017-2025, January 7, 2025)
ONLY IMPORTED SWEETENED BEVERAGES EXCLUSIVELY USING COCONUT SAP SUGAR OR STEVIOL GLYCOSIDES ARE EXCISE TAX-EXEMPT; NO ADDED CALORIC/NON-CALORIC SWEETENERS REMAIN TAXABLE. Under Section 47 of Republic Act No. 10963 (TRAIN Law) and Section 3 of Revenue Regulations No. 20-2018, only sweetened beverages using purely coconut sap sugar and purely steviol glycosides are exempt from excise tax; therefore, imported sweetened beverages, even if certified by the FDA as having no added caloric and non-caloric sweeteners, remain subject to excise tax if they do not exclusively use the exempted sweeteners, especially if the presence of high fructose corn syrup is not explicitly ruled out. (BIR Ruling No. OT-018-2025, January 7, 2025).
A RETIREMENT FUND, WHILE TAX-EXEMPT, IS STRICTLY PROHIBITED FROM INVESTING IN THE EMPLOYER’S BUSINESS VENTURES TO PREVENT DIVERSION OF FUNDS, SAFEGUARD EMPLOYEE BENEFITS, AND MAINTAIN FINANCIAL SEPARATION. Under Section 60(B) of the Tax Code, as amended, and Section 5 of Revenue Regulations No. 1-68, as amended, a retirement fund, while a separate taxable entity with income generally exempt from tax, must operate exclusively for the benefit of its employees. Consequently, investing the retirement fund in the employer’s business ventures is prohibited as it could lead to a substantial diversion of income or corpus, jeopardize the fund’s sufficiency to pay benefits due to the variability of business operations, and compromise the crucial separation of funds, potentially facilitating tax evasion. (BIR Ruling No. OT-019-2025, January 7, 2025)
INCOME FROM PHILIPPINE INVESTMENTS BY FOREIGN GOVERNMENT-OWNED ENTITIES IS ONLY TAX-EXEMPT IF THEY ARE RECOGNIZED “FINANCING INSTITUTIONS,” NOT “INVESTMENT COMPANIES”, THUS MAKING THE SUBJECT COMPANIES’ INCOME FROM PHILIPPINE STOCKS, BONDS, OR OTHER DOMESTIC SECURITIES FULLY TAXABLE. Pursuant to Section 32 (B) (7) (a) of the Tax Code, as amended, and considering the distinctions between “financing companies” (as defined by R.A. No. 5980, as amended by R.A. No. 8556) and “investment companies” (as per Section 4 of R.A. No. 2629), income derived from Philippine investments by entities owned by foreign governments is exempt from income tax only if they are recognized as financing institutions or international/regional financial institutions established by foreign governments. In this case, the Companies, despite being wholly owned subsidiaries of a foreign sovereign wealth fund, are primarily engaged in investing and trading securities, which classifies them as investment companies rather than financing institutions. Therefore, their income from investments in Philippine stocks, bonds, or other domestic securities is subject to Philippine income tax and withholding taxes. (BIR Ruling No. OT-020-2025, January 7, 2025).
BIR DEADLINES FROM JULY 28 – AUGUST 03, 2025. A gentle reminder on the following deadlines, as may be applicable:
| DATE | FILING/SUBMISSION |
| July 30, 2025 | ONLINE REGISTRATION (thru ORUS) – Computerized Books of Accounts and Other Accounting Records – Fiscal Year ending June 30, 2025 |
| SUBMISSION – Proof of eFiled BIR Form 1702 – RT/EX/MX with Audited Financial Statements (AFS), 1709 (if applicable), and Other Attachments through Electronic Audited Financial Statements (eAFS) or Manually– Fiscal Year ending March 31, 2025 | |
| SUBMISSION – Soft Copies of Inventory List and Schedules stored and saved in DVD-R/USB properly labeled together with Notarized Sworn Declaration – Fiscal Year ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-SUBMISSION – Quarterly Summary List of Sales/Purchases/Importations by a VAT Registered Taxpayers. eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1702Q (Quarterly Income Tax Return For Corporations, Partnerships and Other Non-Individual Taxpayers) and Summary Alphalist of Withholding Taxes (SAWT) – Fiscal Quarter ending May 31, 2025 | |
| July 31, 2025
|
e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1601-EQ (Quarterly Remittance Return of Creditable Income Taxes Withheld-Expanded) and Quarterly Alphalist of Payees (QAP) – eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1601-FQ (Quarterly Remittance Return of Final Income Taxes Withheld) and Quarterly Alphalist of Payees (QAP) – eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1602Q (Quarterly Remittance Return of Final Taxes Withheld on Interest Paid on Deposits and Yield on Deposit Substitutes/Trusts/Etc.) – eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1603Q (Quarterly Remittance Return of Final Income Taxes Withheld on Fringe Benefits Paid to Employees Other Than Rank and File) – eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 1621 (Quarterly Remittance Return of Tax Withheld on the Amount Withdrawn from Decedent’s Deposit Account) – eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers -For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| SUBMISSION – Contract of Lease and Lessee Information Statement and Other Attachments by Lessors/Sub-Lessors of Commercial Establishments, Buildings or Spaces for Tenants – 1st Semester of 2025 | |
| SUBMISSION – Sworn Statement by every Lessee/Concessionaire/Owner or Operator of Mines & Quarry/Processor of Minerals/Producer or Manufacturer of Mineral Products – 1st Semester of 2025 | |
| SUBMISSION – Quarterly Summary List of Sales/Purchases/Importations by a VAT Registered Taxpayers. Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 2550Q (Quarterly Value-Added Tax Return). eFPS & Non-eFPS Filers – For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| e-FILING/FILING & e-PAYMENT/PAYMENT – BIR Form 2551Q (Quarterly Percentage Tax Return). For the Quarter ending June 30, 2025 | |
| August 01, 2025 | SUBMISSION – Consolidated Return of All Transactions based on Reconciled Data of Stockbrokers. July 16-31, 2025 |
| SUBMISSION – Engagement Letters and Renewals or Subsequent Agreements for Financial Audit by Independent CPAs – Fiscal Year beginning October 1, 2025 |